Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
**802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
**802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.
2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
**Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
**802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.
3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
set up WEP on the access point only
**set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open
4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Mode
**Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel
5. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.
**Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
**Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.
Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
**This design will not scale easily.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
**This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
**If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.
2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
**Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.
3. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?
R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
**S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.
4. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
**The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
**Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.
Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
**Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
**Non-root switches each have only one root port.
2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
**They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
**They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.
3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
**to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
**to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
**immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
**becomes a normal spanning-tree port
5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
**Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.
Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
**VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
2. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
**Switches must be connected via trunks.
**The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.
3. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
**Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
**Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.
4. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
revision number
**domain name
pruning
mode
**domain password
**version number
5. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
**A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
A port on the switch has been shutdown.
The switch is changed to the transparent mode.
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
**802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
**VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
**VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.
3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
VLAN1 should renamed.
**VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
**All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.
4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
**Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.
5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
A
A, B
A, B, D, G
A, D, F
**C, E
C, E, F
Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
**The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.
2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
1
**2
4
6
7
8
3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 drops the frame.
**SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.
4. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?
Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
**to secure the console port with the password “cisco”
to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available
to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password
to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access
5. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
append ? to the last parameter
**append a space and then ? to the last parameter
use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list
use the Tab key to show which options are available
Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
forwarding rate
**traffic flow analysis
**expected future growth
number of required core connections
number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance
2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
Layer 1
**Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
**A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
QoS issues are greatly reduced.
There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams
4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
application
access
**distribution
network
core
5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
port security
security policies
**10 Gigabit Ethernet
**quality of service (QoS)
**hot-swappable hardware
Power over Ethernet (PoE)
Posted by: nR on: March 14, 2009
1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “O*E2″ from the “O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0″ line represent?
an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.
2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
1786
3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
area id
hello interval
network type
4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
designated router
backup designated router
5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth
6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the “2″ stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.
10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.
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